唔識rigorious prove ,但個思路應該係assume there exist z0 such that f'(z0) = 0. 而conplex function d 到一次就可以d無限次(又或者用題目 f 係 analytic). f'(z0) = 0 = f''(z0) = ... = f^無限次(z0). 即係話響z0 附近嘅點(i.e. w) , f(z0) = f(w) , but z0 =/= w. contradict to f is one to one.
飄移巴士2025-03-01 23:33:41
好似可以用Taylor Series Expansion去寫 f(w1) = 得第一個term of Taylor Series Expansion keep 到 = f(z0)
西野實瀨2025-03-08 07:30:46
Assume f’(z)=0
f(z) = c for any constant C.
So f(z) is non a one to one function which is contraindicated.
.’. f’(z)=/=0 🙏🏻
西野實瀨2025-03-08 07:38:44
Part b
If g(w)=f-1(w)
So f(g(w))=w
differentiate both wrt w
f’(g(w))•g’(w)=1
g’(w)= 1/(f’(g(w))
馬交FD麻鳩煩2025-03-08 07:41:15
上邊冇寫“解”,全部零分
成個地球都係我2025-03-08 14:02:52
點解你地可以甘勁,我睇唔明
Poincare-Hopf2025-03-09 18:51:08
太耐無做,我諗應該係咁
咩係越位2025-03-09 19:43:15
v唔係constant會唔會影響m distinct roots
應該要argue for small enough |w| ? (仲細過epsilon)
咩係越位2025-03-09 20:21:24
有個圖像啲嘅諗法,未必係答題會用
照例WLOG, f(0)=f'(0)=0
=> f(z) = ak z^k + ak+1 z^(k+1) + ... for some integer k >= 2
For small enough r, the z^k term dominates such that f maps the circular path
{ r e^(i theta) : 0 <= theta < 2pi }
to a loop going around the origin k >= 2 times, as theta goes from 0 to 2pi
=> Such image loop must intersect itself
=> Contradict with f being one-to-one